Medical Laboratory Science Review 4th Edition. Download e-Book. Posted on. Page Count. Elsevier S Integrated Histology. Aircraft Structures For Engineering Students. Elsevier S Integrated Genetics. A pure culture of a b-hemolytic Streptococcus sp. CAMP factor is which of the following?
Streptococcus pneumoniae reactions: b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. The rapid antigen detection methods for throat Optochin Resistant SXT Sensitive swabs used for screening patients for streptococcal pharyngitis can be best described by which of the fol- Which of the following is the most likely identifica- lowing statements? They can be useful in quickly identifying most a.
Streptococcus pyogenes cases of streptococcal pharyngitis b. A skin lesion was opened and drained in surgery. The d. Streptococcus sp. The ability to grow well at refrigerator temperatures is which gave the following growth characteristics a characteristic of which of the following organisms?
Erysipelothrix Nonmotile No spores d. Bacillus cereus A catalase-positive, gram-positive bacillus that is not These reactions are consistent with which of the acid-fast, does not branch, and does not form spores following organisms? Listeria spp. Corynebacterium b. Group B b Streptococcus b. Bacillus c. Erysipelothrix spp. Nocardia d. Corynebacterium spp. Mycobacterium Which of the following sets of tests provide the best A throat culture was taken from a 6-year-old differentiation of Erysipelothrix from Listeria boy with a gray pseudomembrane covering his oro- monocytogenes?
A catalase-positive organism was isolated a. Gram-stained smear, oxidase, and optochin on cysteine-tellurite medium and subcultured to b. Gram-stained smear, catalase, and motility Tinsdale medium, where it grew as black colonies c.
CAMP test, hydrogen sulfide production, esculin with brown halos. A Gram stain was performed on hydrolysis these colonies. Which of the following cellular mor- d. Reverse CAMP, gram-stained smear, b-hemolysis phologies was most likely seen?
Neonatal meningitis is an uncommon but sig- a. Gram-positive branching bacilli nificant disease. Two important causes of b. Gram-positive cocci in short chains this disease may be somewhat difficult to diff- c. Gram-positive bacilli in irregular clublike erentiate on preliminary observation.
Which of shape the following sets of tests provide the best differen- d. Gram-positive cocci in grapelike clusters tiation of Streptococcus agalactiae from Listeria A blood culture is positive for gram-positive bacilli monocytogenes? Gram-stained smear, oxidase, and optochin biochemical reactions: b. Reverse CAMP, gram-stained smear, b-hemolysis Which of the following tests is important as a part of These reactions are consistent with which of the the genus identification or as part of a preliminary following organisms?
Group B b Streptococcus a. Demonstration of a capsule c. Demonstration of spore formation d. Positive PCR test d. Lysis of the strain by specific bacteriophages Bacillus anthracis and Bacillus cereus can be differ- entiated in the laboratory by a variety of different test results.
Which of the following sets of tests best dif- ferentiate these two species? Catalase and glucose fermentation b. Motility and lecithinase production c. Which of the following specimens would be best for identifying Bacillus cereus as the cause of an out- break of food poisoning? Blood b. Rectal swabs c.
See also color plate 3. A first morning sputum sample is received for acid- The gram-negative bacillus that can be described as fast culture. Stains reveal gram-negative bacilli. Klebsiella pneumoniae Which of the following should be done to avoid this b. Salmonella enteritidis problem?
Escherichia coli a. Use a medium specifically designed for the d. Shigella sonnei growth of AFB The swarming gram-negative bacillus that can be b. Dilute out the sediment before inoculation with described as oxidase-negative, nitrate-positive, saline indole-negative, and H2S-positive is mostly likely c.
Decontaminate the specimen with NALC which of the following? Proteus aerogenes d. Incubate the tubes at room temperature to retard b. Proteus vulgaris bacterial growth c. Proteus mirabilis A patient recently arrived in the United States from d. Escherichia coli Africa presents with a long-standing cutaneous Profuse watery diarrhea rice water stools , lead- lesion, which is cultured for bacteria, fungi, and ing to dramatic fluid loss, severe dehydration, and AFB.
After 8 weeks of culture on both non- hallmark of which toxin activity? Cholera toxin appear. Which of the following organisms should b. Enteric endotoxin be suspected? Shiga toxin a. Toxin A b. The selective medium thiosulfate citrate bile c. The mycobacterial species that occur in humans and cultures? Vibrio spp. Salmonella spp. Shigella spp. Plesiomonas spp. The majority of human infections with Cam- and M. Direct contact with carriers of the bacterium d. Contamination of food, milk, or water with africanum animal feces The Runyon system of classification is based on c.
Multiplication of the organism in food products which of the following? Direct contact with persons infected with the a. Colony and microscopic morphology bacterium b. Biochemical characteristics In the test for urease production, the presence of c. Growth rate and colonial pigmentation the enzyme hydrolyzes urea to which of the d.
All of the above are correct following? In identification of mycobacterial isolates, the Tween a. Ammonia and CO2 80 test involves which of the following? Putrescine a. An enzyme that is able to produce Tween c. Amines and CO2 80 from certain ingredients found in the d. Amines and water medium The bacterial isolate on XLD agar shown in the b. Lipase that is able to hydrolyze polyoxyethylene image was isolated from a routine stool culture.
The metabolism of niacin to nicotinic acid by a. Klebsiella pneumoniae enzymatic action b. Salmonella enteritidis d. Testing the isolate for susceptibility to c. Shigella sonnei Tween 80 d. The organism is most likely which of the following? Klebsiella sp. Shigella sp. Salmonella sp. The best specimen for the isolation of Bordetella per- tussis is which of the following? Throat swabs b. Sputum c. Nasopharyngeal aspirates d.
Anterior nose swab Organisms belonging to the genus Brucella are best described by which of the following statements? See also color plate 4. Gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli c. Gram-negative coccobacilli The bacterial isolate shown below on CIN agar was d.
Gram-negative bacilli isolated from a routine stool culture. Which of the Serum samples collected on a patient with pneumo- following genera and species is the most likely iden- nia demonstrate a rising antibody titer to Legionella.
Which of the fol- lowing is the best explanation? Culture was not incubated long enough b. Antibody titer c. Specimen was incubated at the wrong temperature d.
Positive DFA test result is a false positive Of the following media, which provides the NAD necessary for the growth of Haemophilus spp.? Brain heart infusion agar c. Chocolate agar d. Nutrient agar Performing the factor requirement test for Haemo- philus involves which of the following processes?
See also color plate 5. Inoculation of unsupplemented media with a light suspension of the organism and placement of fac- tors X and V disks on the agar surface a. Shigella flexneri b. Inoculation of liquid media, unsupplemented and b. Salmonella enteritidis supplemented with factors X and V c.
Yersinia enterocolitica c. Detecting the presence of enzymes that convert a- d. Escherichia coli aminolevulinic acid ALA into porphyrins Decarboxylation of the amino acids lysine, ornithine, d.
Growth of the organism in the presence of bacte- and arginine results in the formation of which of the rial species that produce X and V factors as met- following products? Ammonia Of the asaccharolytic, oxidase-positive bacilli that do b. Urea not grow on MacConkey agar, which one is among c. Amines acute bacterial endocarditis? An organism was inoculated into a TSI tube and gave a. Eikenella corrodens the following reactions: b. Weeksella virosa Alkaline slant c.
Pseudomonas maltophilia Acid butt d. Sphingomonas paucimobilis H2S: Not produced Fermenter Thayer-Martin medium from genital sites of a 6- d. Nonviable year-old female as Neisseria gonorrhoeae? The oxidase test is a critical test when attempting to a. Provides the physician with quick and reliable identify nonfermenting gram-negative bacilli. This results at minimal cost test is designed to determine the presence of which b. May sometimes be incorrect, and a repeat culture of the following? May sometimes be incorrect and should not be b.
Cytochrome oxidase reported until confirmed c. Glucose oxidizing enzymes d. Should be done only when venereal disease is d. Oxygen suspected The blood culture of a patient with a central venous The bacterial species that can be described as oxidase- catheter yielded a gram-negative bacillus growing on positive, glucose-positive, maltose-positive, sucrose- MacConkey agar with the following reactions: negative, lactose-negative, and a major cause of bac- Oxidase Negative Motility Positive terial meningitis is most likely which of the following?
Glucose oxidative- Maltose oxidative-fermentative a. Neisseria meningitidis fermentative open Positive strong b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae open Positive weak c. Streptococcus pneumoniae Catalase Positive Esculin hydrolysis Positive d.
Viridans group Streptococcus The bacterial species that can be described as oxidase- Which of the following is the most likely identifica- positive, glucose-positive, maltose-negative, sucrose- tion of this organism?
Burkholderia cepacia venereal disease is most likely which of the following? Pseudomonas aeruginosa a. Neisseria meningitidis c. Acinetobacter baumannii b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae d. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia c. Streptococcus pyogenes Which organism is associated with the disease d. Viridans group Streptococcus Melioidosis? Organisms belonging to the genus Neisseria are a. Burkholderia ralstonia described as which of the following? Burkholderia pseudomallei a.
Gram-positive diplococci c. Burkholderia mallei b. Gram-negative diplococci d. Burkholderia cepacia c. Differentiation of Stenotrophomonas maltophilia d.
Gram-negative bacilli and Burkholderia cepacia is best accomplished by The following were observed when the Hugh-Leifson which of the following tests? Oxidase test terial isolate.
Which of the options below best b. Maltose and glucose medium describes the organisms reaction? Tyrosine-enriched heart infusion agar a. Oxidizer d. Nonoxidizer Which of the following is the most likely identifica- tion of this organism? Burkholderia cepacia b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Acinetobacter baumannii d. WH Ewing, courtesy the Centers See also color plate 6.
Growth on MacConkey agar, catalase, nitrate has now spread to include his trunk. The medical team reduction has identified a list of possible organisms. Which of c. Growth on blood agar, oxidase, catalase the following is the most likely cause of this infection?
TSI, urea, motility a. Q Fever Which of the following sets of results represent the b. Ehrlichiosis most common reactions for Moraxella catarrhalis c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever when tested in CTA sugar tubes? Cat scratch disease a. Glucose: Negative; Maltose: Negative; Lactose: Which of the following is a stage of venereal syphilis Negative; Sucrose: Negative that is characterized by the appearance of a chancre? Glucose: Positive; Maltose: Negative; Lactose: a.
Primary syphilis Negative; Sucrose: Negative b. Secondary syphilis c. Glucose: Positive; Maltose: Positive; Lactose: c. Late syphilis Negative; Sucrose: Negative d. Tertiary syphilis d. Glucose: Positive; Maltose: Negative; Lactose: Which of the following is a nontreponemal serologic Positive; Sucrose: Negative test in which soluble antigen particles are coalesced A soluble, bright green pigment can be produced by to form larger particles that are visible as clumps Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
This pigment is known as when they are aggregated by antibody? Nontreponemal flocculation NTF a. Pyoverdin b. Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption b. Pyorubin c. Venereal Disease Research Laboratory d. Pyophena VDRL test A small portion of a colony of a gram-negative bacilli d. One per- A patient in a rural area of Massachusetts had a 5-cm cent tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine dihydrochlor- red rash with an expanding margin on his back. The ide was added. At 10 seconds, a dark purple color lesion was obvious for approximately a month and developed where the colony was added to the paper.
Several weeks later, the patient experi- Which of the following statements best describes the enced episodes of partial facial paralysis and painful test results? Which of the following is the most likely infec- a. Positive indole test tious agent in this case? Positive oxidase test a. Borrelia hermsii c. Positive urea test b. Borrelia burgdorferi d. Positive esculin test c.
Leptospira interrogans Characteristics of Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma d. Spirillum minor include which of the following? A year-old, sexually active patient comes to his a. This site comply with DMCA digital copyright. We do not store files not owned by us, or without the permission of the owner.
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